CertiPro CISSP: DRAFT Domain 1 Quesitons 2023 (Intermediate)
***This is course is in the draft version. Please give us couple of more days to finalize the questions.***
This practice question set was developed for learners who want to make sure they fully understand Domain 1 as part of the broader CISSP preparation process.
The questions are separate from our best in class CertiPro CISSP: Practice CISSP Exam 2023 (Intermediate) and are meant to enhance understanding of Domain specifically.
This CISSP practice test question set focuses exclusively on Domain 1: Security and Risk Management, which is an essential aspect of the Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) exam. Domain 1 covers critical topics such as confidentiality, integrity, and availability, risk assessment, risk management, and organizational security policies and procedures.
Our carefully crafted questions will challenge your understanding of key concepts and principles within Domain 1, including:
- Information security principles and concepts, including the CIA triad, security governance, and security management.
- Risk management processes and methodologies, including risk assessment, risk mitigation, and risk monitoring.
- Legal, regulatory, and compliance requirements related to information security, including data protection laws, industry standards, and compliance frameworks.
- Security policies, procedures, and guidelines that form the foundation of an organization’s security program, including their development, implementation, and enforcement.
- Business continuity and disaster recovery planning, which ensure the organization’s resilience in the face of security incidents and disasters.
- Personnel security and security awareness training, which emphasize the importance of human factors in information security.
By practicing with this Domain 1-specific question set, you will gain a deeper understanding of the material and improve your ability to apply your knowledge in real-world scenarios. Whether you are preparing for the CISSP exam or looking to enhance your understanding of security and risk management principles, this practice test will provide valuable insights and help you build the necessary confidence to succeed.
Below are some sample Q&A:
1. Rashid, a security consultant, is reviewing the risk management processes of an organization. He discovers that the organization mainly relies on qualitative risk assessment methods. Which of the following scenarios would be a primary concern for Rashid when using qualitative risk assessment methods?
a. Comparing risks across different departments
b. Assigning a monetary value to identified risks
c. Identifying the root cause of each risk
d. Communicating the risk information to stakeholders
2. Maria, the CISO of a multinational corporation, is updating the company’s information security policies. She wants to ensure that the policies are aligned with international best practices. Which of the following frameworks would be the most appropriate for Maria to follow when updating the security policies?
a. NIST Cybersecurity Framework
b. ISO/IEC 27001
c. COBIT 5
d. PCI DSS
3. Yusuf is a security analyst responsible for conducting a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) for his organization. Which of the following factors would be the most crucial for Yusuf to consider when evaluating the potential impact of a disruption to critical business processes?
a. Cost of the disruption
b. Duration of the disruption
c. Maximum tolerable downtime
d. Resource requirements for recovery
4. During a security audit, Natasha discovers that an organization’s incident response plan lacks clear procedures for handling data breaches. As a result, sensitive data may be at risk of unauthorized access or disclosure. Which of the following would be the most appropriate step for Natasha to take next?
a. Implement a data classification policy
b. Recommend the adoption of a data loss prevention (DLP) solution
c. Update the incident response plan to include specific data breach procedures
d. Conduct regular security awareness training for employees
5. Wei is responsible for implementing an access control model that allows for centralized and flexible management of access control policies and enforces them consistently across all systems. Which of the following access control models should Wei implement?
a. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
b. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
c. Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
d. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
6. Gabriela is developing a security awareness program for her organization. Which of the following topics should she prioritize in the training curriculum to reduce the likelihood of social engineering attacks?
a. Secure coding practices
b. Network segmentation
c. Recognizing phishing emails
d. Data backup procedures
7. Amir, a security analyst, is working on a project to implement two-factor authentication for an organization’s remote access system. Which of the following combinations would provide the strongest form of two-factor authentication?
a. Password and security questions
b. Password and biometrics
c. Biometrics and security token
d. Security token and smart card
8. During a risk assessment, Olga identifies several risks with a high likelihood of occurrence and significant impact on the organization. The risks involve unpatched Servers. In this situation, which of the following risk treatment strategies would be the most appropriate for Olga to recommend to reduce the level of risk?
a. Risk acceptance
b. Risk avoidance
c. Risk mitigation
d. Risk transfer
9. Carlos is reviewing the logs of a recent security incident and discovers that an attacker exploited a zero-day vulnerability in the organization’s web application. Which of the following would be the most effective way for Carlos to prevent future exploitation of similar vulnerabilities?
a. Regularly patch and update software
b. Implement a web application firewall (WAF)
c. Conduct regular penetration testing
d. Enforce strong password policies
10. Priya is responsible for securing her organization’s mobile devices. To ensure the devices are protected from unauthorized access and data leakage, which of the following would be the most effective solution for Priya to implement?
a. Network Access Control (NAC)
b. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
c. Mobile Device Management (MDM)
d. Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
1. Correct answer: a. Comparing risks across different departments
Explanation: Qualitative risk assessment methods rely on subjective analysis and use descriptive terms, such as low, medium, or high, to evaluate risks. This approach can make it difficult to compare risks across different departments or business units consistently, as the subjective nature may result in varying interpretations. Quantitative risk assessment methods, which use numerical values, are better suited for such comparisons.
Incorrect answer options: b. Assigning a monetary value to identified risks – Quantitative risk assessment methods are used for this purpose. c. Identifying the root cause of each risk – Both qualitative and quantitative methods can be used to identify root causes. d. Communicating the risk information to stakeholders – Both qualitative and quantitative methods can be used to communicate risk information.
2. Correct answer: b. ISO/IEC 27001
Explanation: ISO/IEC 27001 is an international standard for information security management systems (ISMS) that provides a comprehensive framework for establishing, implementing, and maintaining security policies, procedures, and controls within an organization. Aligning the company’s security policies with this standard will ensure that they adhere to international best practices.
Incorrect answer options: a. NIST Cybersecurity Framework – While this framework offers a structure for managing cybersecurity risk, it is not as comprehensive as ISO/IEC 27001 for creating security policies. c. COBIT 5 – COBIT 5 focuses on IT governance and management, not specifically on creating security policies. d. PCI DSS – The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) specifically addresses the protection of cardholder data and is not a comprehensive framework for overall security policy development.
3. Correct answer: c. Maximum tolerable downtime
Explanation: The maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) is the maximum amount of time that an organization can tolerate a disruption to a critical business process before it causes unacceptable damage or losses. When evaluating the potential impact of a disruption, it is essential to consider the MTD, as it will help determine the required recovery time objectives (RTOs) and recovery point objectives (RPOs) for business continuity and disaster recovery planning.
Incorrect answer options: a. Cost of the disruption – While important, cost is only one aspect of evaluating the potential impact of a disruption. b. Duration of the disruption – MTD is more crucial than the disruption’s duration, as it indicates the maximum time a business can withstand the disruption. d. Resource requirements for recovery – Resource requirements are important for recovery planning but are not the most crucial factor when evaluating the potential impact of a disruption.
4. Correct answer: c. Update the incident response plan to include specific data breach procedures
Explanation: An incident response plan should include clear procedures for handling different types of security incidents, including data breaches. By updating the plan to include specific data breach procedures, Natasha can ensure that the organization is better prepared to respond to and manage such incidents, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or disclosure of sensitive data.
Incorrect answer options: a. Implement a data classification policy – While important for overall data protection, it does not directly address the lack of data breach procedures in the incident response plan. b. Recommend the adoption of a data loss prevention (DLP) solution – Although DLP can help prevent data breaches, it does not address the lack of data breach procedures in the incident response plan. d. Conduct regular security awareness training for employees – While this is a crucial component of a security program, it does not directly address the lack of data breach procedures in the incident response plan.
5. Correct answer: c. Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
Explanation: Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) is an access control model that allows for centralized management of access control policies and enforces them consistently across all systems. It uses attributes, such as user roles, resource attributes, and environmental factors, to determine access permissions. This model provides a more granular and flexible approach to managing access control compared to other models.
Incorrect answer options: a. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) – While RBAC centralizes management of access control, it is not as flexible or granular as ABAC since it relies solely on user roles. b. Mandatory Access Control (MAC) – MAC enforces access control based on classification levels and is not designed for centralized management and enforcement across all systems. d. Discretionary Access Control (DAC) – DAC allows users to grant or restrict access to resources at their discretion, which is not suitable for centralized management of access control policies.
6. Correct answer: c. Recognizing phishing emails
Explanation: Social engineering attacks, such as phishing, often rely on deception and manipulation to trick users into revealing sensitive information or granting unauthorized access. To reduce the likelihood of successful social engineering attacks, it is crucial to prioritize training employees on how to recognize phishing emails and avoid falling victim to them.
Incorrect answer options: a. Secure coding practices – This topic is more relevant for developers and is not directly related to social engineering attacks. b. Network segmentation – While important for overall security, network segmentation does not address social engineering attacks. d. Data backup procedures – While data backups are important for disaster recovery, they do not directly address social engineering attacks.
7. Correct answer: c. Biometrics and security token
Explanation: Two-factor authentication (2FA) relies on the use of two different factors or categories of authentication methods. The three primary categories are something you know (e.g., passwords), something you have (e.g., security tokens), and something you are (e.g., biometrics). Combining biometrics (something you are) with a security token (something you have) provides the strongest form of two-factor authentication, as it requires attackers to overcome two distinct barriers.
Incorrect answer options: a. Password and security questions – Both are “something you know” factors and do not provide true two-factor authentication. b. Password and biometrics – While this combination provides strong 2FA, biometrics and security token are considered stronger due to the need to possess a physical device (security token) along with a unique biological characteristic (biometrics). d. Security token and smart card – Both are “something you have” factors and do not provide true two-factor authentication.
8. Correct answer: c. Risk mitigation
Explanation: When facing risks with a high likelihood of occurrence and significant impact on the organization, risk mitigation is the most appropriate treatment strategy. Risk mitigation involves implementing controls and measures to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk to an acceptable level. This approach helps minimize the potential negative consequences of the identified risks.
Incorrect answer options: a. Risk acceptance – This strategy is not appropriate for high-likelihood and high-impact risks, as it involves accepting the risk without taking any action to address it. b. Risk avoidance – Risk avoidance involves completely eliminating the risk by not engaging in the activity that generates it. This approach is often not practical or feasible for many risks. d. Risk transfer – While transferring risk to a third party (e.g., through insurance) can be a valid strategy, it does not actively reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk itself.
9. Correct answer: b. Implement a web application firewall (WAF)
Explanation: A web application firewall (WAF) is specifically designed to protect web applications from various types of attacks, including zero-day vulnerabilities. By implementing a WAF, Carlos can create custom rules and use virtual patching to prevent the exploitation of newly discovered vulnerabilities, even before patches or updates are available from the software vendor.
Incorrect answer options: a. Regularly patch and update software – While important, patching and updating software may not be sufficient to protect against zero-day vulnerabilities, as patches may not yet be available. c. Conduct regular penetration testing – Although penetration testing can help identify vulnerabilities, it is a reactive measure and does not actively prevent the exploitation of zero-day vulnerabilities. d. Enforce strong password policies – While important for overall security, strong password policies do not directly address zero-day vulnerabilities in web applications.
10. Correct answer: c. Mobile Device Management (MDM)
Explanation: Mobile Device Management (MDM) is a solution specifically designed to secure, monitor, and manage mobile devices, such as smartphones and tablets. MDM allows organizations to enforce security policies, remotely wipe or lock lost or stolen devices, and prevent unauthorized access to corporate data. Implementing MDM is the most effective way to protect mobile devices from unauthorized access and data leakage.
Incorrect answer options: a. Network Access Control (NAC) – While NAC can help manage access to network resources, it does not specifically address the unique security challenges of mobile devices. b. Intrusion Detection System (IDS) – IDS is designed to detect potential security threats within a network, not to manage and secure mobile devices. d. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) – While DLP can help prevent data leakage, it does not provide comprehensive security and management capabilities for mobile devices.
Who this course is for:
- CISSP learners who want to hone their Domain 1 skills